[pinkpanther]

When they removed the verse 1 John 5:7, was it because of scribal errors?

No, not because of scribal error. We both know why they removed it.

It appears in some Latin manuscripts..and present in some later Greek manuscripts but is absent from the earliest Greek manuscripts and early versions like the Syriac, Coptic, Armenian, and Ethiopic translations.

it's widely believed to be a later addition to the text, rather than an original part of the letter...so the responsible thing to do is to remove it ..

Is it scribal error or corruption? Absolutely not!